"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message
ink.net...

How does the
degree of "distinctness" of a given group bear on the question of
whether
marginal cost is the the right measure to use when assessing fees for
that
group?


Nobody should be required to pay for things they do not use.

How does that reply address the question it's replying to? In essence, the
question has to do with how we quantify the "things they use"--in
particular, is the marginal cost the right measure? You're proposing that
it is the right measure for "distinct" groups, but not for groups that
are not very "distinct" (such as in my analogy). What I'm wondering, and
what you have yet to address, is why you think a group's "distinctness" has
anything to do with whether marginal cost is the right way to quantify what
they "use".

--Gary