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Old July 17th 03, 03:59 PM
Peter Gottlieb
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OK, here's one. I have heard the FAA considers "time" to be compensation.
The following is hypothetical.

Let's say I have a wife who thinks flying is a waste of my time. So she
always gives me a hard time when I want to use the plane. Now, she has a
friend who needs to get somewhere, a small airport that no commercial planes
go, and she asks me to fly her there. No monetary compensation is involved
(nor other "favors" from her friend, for those of you with dirty minds).
All I get out of it is time flying, and I bear all the costs. I would have
no other reason to fly to that particular field (although no reason not to
either).

Is this legal in the FAAs eyes?


"Greg Burkhart" wrote in message
news:hgyRa.81603$N7.9685@sccrnsc03...
Not to nitpick, but Roger said 3 passengers, which would be then divided

by
4, hence $20 minimum.

I pay for the entire flight myself and haven't had to divide my costs. If

I
can't afford to fly someplace without passengers, I don't fly...

"blanche cohen" wrote in message
...
$80 divided by 3 people is $26.67, not $20.

What the rule states (altho not clearly) is that the PIC may pay
exactly 1/3 of the cost OR upto and including the ENTIRE cost of
the flight.

Anything else is "compensation for hire".

The phrase "pro rata" translates to "fair share".