Jose wrote:
(However, some voting rights to non-citizen property owners,
relating solely to their property, would be reasonable).


No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to
vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership?


Local zoning issues come to mind.

That may be particular to where you live. Here if there's a zoning
issue and I would like to have my say I simply show up at the city
council meeting.