"Jose" wrote in message
. net...
(However, some voting rights to non-citizen property owners,
relating solely to their property, would be reasonable).

No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to
vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership?

Local zoning issues come to mind.

Jose
--

Are you saying that in your local you have to be a land owner in order to
vote on zoning issues that have to do with zoning? If so what local is that?