"Gig 601XL Builder" wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote in message
...
"Grumman-581" wrote in message
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On Tue, 25 Jul 2006 11:30:17 -0500, "Gig 601XL Builder"
wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote:
No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to
vote
so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership?
We used to require land ownership to vote... Personally, I think it
was a mistake going away from it...
Yep, those pesky civil rights laws.
There was a step in the middle. Originally, you had to be a landowner.
Then many (most? all?) places changed the requirement to a poll tax, then
the Civil Rights Act outlawed poll taxes.