Grumman-581 wrote:
On Tue, 25 Jul 2006 11:30:17 -0500, "Gig 601XL Builder"
wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote:
No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership
to vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land
ownership?

We used to require land ownership to vote... Personally, I think it
was a mistake going away from it...

As long as the non-land owners don't have to abide by the laws, no problem!
;-)

But since everyone is expected to abide by the law, everyone should get to
vote on the people who make those laws - right?