"Spiv" wrote in message
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"D. Patterson" wrote in message
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"Spiv" wrote in message
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"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message
hlink.net...

"Spiv" wrote in message
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More arms were needed than what we could make. Duh!


Yes, the UK could not arm or feed itself during WWII.

It could feed itself, but it took until 1943 until UK industry
outperformed
Germany. Today, with modern farming techniques, the UK can easily
feed
itself, and others. At one point it produced more food than Canada,
and
more than Australia. We pay farmers not to produce now.

Britain produced only 30% of its food going into the war. It never
remotely
approached 100% and badly damaged its soil fertility for decades to come
in
the efforts to increase the food production.

Nonsense. Britain invented globalisation in the 1700s.

No, it did not. It used armed forces to keep globalization from occurring by
making it unlawful to construct manufacturies or sell raw materials to
anyone but Britain.

The UK has
consistently imported produce and products that are cheaper than the home
market.

Yes, by prohibiting the manufacturies in its captive colonies.

When it comes down to it, it can feed itself. In 1939 it was not
ready,still importing vast qualitioes of food from the empire and others.

Yes, by importing 70% of its food in 1939 and 49% of its food in 1945.
Britain was incapable of feeding itself in the Second World War.

By
1945 internal food production was way ahead of 1939.

Food production increased by 70% from 30% self-sufficiency in 1939 to about
51% self-sufficiency in 1945. Britain remained incapable of feeding itself
in the second World War.