"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote:
"Brett" wrote in message
...

The same reason that slaves counted as three fifths of a person in
Article
I
Section 2 of The Constitution of the United States.


I don't see the similarity. The slaves were in this country legally.

If you don't understand the reason why slaves were counted in a census that
divided up Congressional seats to the various States while being considered
someone's property; you would probably never understand why the XIV
amendment refers to persons but specifically excludes Indians and how those
numbers may be reduced when the XIV amendment could have been refined to
just say citizens of the United States.