"Peter Duniho" wrote in message
...
"Icebound" wrote in message
able.rogers.com...
If he was proveably intoxicated, would not "his" insurance company fight
against paying anything at all, on the basis that the damage occurred
while
he was involved in an illegal activity, and thus he had voided the
insurance
contract?? Or is that a myth??

...snip...
... Though, of course, your own insurance company may
initially provide payment for the damages, passing on that payment to the
drunk driver and/or his insurance company later.

I would have expected the scenerio as you state here. Thanks for the
complete explanation.