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#20
June 21st 04, 04:33 PM
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"G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Yes. It's defined in law. It's been defined in law for centuries. The OED echoes that definition. The State determines what specific killings are illegal. For a killing to be murder, the victim must be human, the killing must have been intentional, it must have been premeditated, and it must be illegal. The State defines what is murder and what is not. So no State has ever defined murder to include the intentional dismemberment of a fetus to be murder? So what's the big deal with Roe-v-Wade then? 
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