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#26
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![]() "Matt Whiting" wrote in message ... Mike Rapoport wrote: "Matt Whiting" wrote in message ... Peter R. wrote: Matt Whiting wrote: So, part of the flake is still below freezing and part is above. Is that really possible? Sure, just as it is possible for water to be below 32F and not frozen. Matt No. The difference is that the snowflake is *melting*. If you cool water, it will go below 0C before freezing but ice will *not* melt below 0C (at normal pressures). I never said it would melt below 0C. I said it is possible that the frozen part of the flake could absorb enough energy from the liquid part to refreeze it. For this to happen the water has to be supercooled. You don't get supercooled water from melting ice. The only way that you can get supercooled water from melting ice is to "melt it" with pressure. Did you ever put ice in a glass and then add some water and have the ice cubes bond together? Same idea. If you don't believe that ice can extract enough energy from water to refreeze it, how do you explain this? Yes, I have seen this happen but it is not the same as what you are describing. If you take a very small-thin piece of ice and allow it to start melting it will not then freeze to anything that is above freezing. It works with larger chunks if ice because the core temp can be significantly lower than the surface temp. This in not true for snow. Keep in mind that ice doesn't have to be at 0C. The temperature of ice can be much lower than 0C and thus it can absorb a fair bit of energy from its surroundings before melting. Yes, but in the case of snow which has a lot of surface area and little volume, the flake will not have big differences in temp from one part to another. I don't know if you are familiar with the concept of "latent hear of fusion" but basically to convert water at 0C to ice at 0C requires a LOT of energy to be removed. Mike MU-2 |
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