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#461
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"Keith Willshaw" wrote in message ... In 1940 you are probably correct. However food production was far higher in subsequent years. But never reached anything approaching self sufficiency. Once again sigh, the U boats were suppressed so no need to concentrate on high yields. |
#462
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"Spiv" wrote:
"Keith Willshaw" wrote in message ... "Spiv" wrote in message ... ... It didn't need to be in 1945, as it imported food from its North American colony, Canada, Canada was an independent nation by then which declared war independently on Germany. Not so. Yes they did, and one Commonwealth of Nations country even chose to not to declare war on Germany in 1939. |
#463
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "Keith Willshaw" wrote in message ... "Spiv" wrote in message ... 1951 I think you will find all rationing was abandoned. From http://www.iwm.org.uk/collections/books/bookfaq12.htm Clothes were de-rationed in March 1949; bread in July 1948 (this was only rationed on the 21 July 1946); jam in December 1948; petrol in May 1950; tea in October 1952; sweets in February 1953; eggs in March 1953; cream in April 1953; sugar in September 1953; butter, cheese, margarine and cooking fats in May 1954; and finally meat in June 1954. Most rationing, about 90% plus was gone by 1951. Your unwillingness to admit an error is to your discredit Keith |
#464
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message link.net... They did know how and went near to doing it, but the battle of the Atlantic was won, so cheap and plentiful grain could be brought from its colony, Canada, and the USA. Canada was a British colony during WWII? Yes. Independence in 1948, for most of Canada and Newfoundland in 1959. The Canadian constitution was given back in 1982. From http://www.solon.org/Constitutions/C...stminster.html An Act to give effect to certain resolutions passed by Imperial Conferences held in the years 1926 and 1930. [11th December, 1931] NOW, THEREFORE, BE IT ENACTED by the King's Most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows:-- 1. In this Act the expression "Dominion" means any of the following Dominions, that is to say, the Dominion of Canada, the Commonwealth of Australia, the Dominion of New Zealand, the Union of South Africa, the Irish Free State and Newfoundland. 2. (1) The Colonial Laws Validity Act, 1865, shall not apply to any law made after the commencement of this Act by the Parliament of a Dominion. (2) No law and no provision of any law made after the commencement of this Act by the Parliament of a Dominion shall be void or inoperative on the ground that it is repugnant to the law of England, or to the provisions of any existing or future Act of Parliament of the United Kingdom, or to any order, rule, or regulation made under any such Act, and the powers of the Parliament of a Dominion shall include the power to repeal or amend any such Act, order, rule or regulation in so far as the same is part of the law of the Dominion. 3. It is hereby declared and enacted that the Parliament of a Dominion has full power to make laws having extra-territorial operation. 4. No Act of Parliament of the United Kingdom passed after the commencement of this Act shall extend or be deemed to extend, to a Dominion as part of the law of that Dominion, unless it is expressly declared in that Act that that Dominion has requested, and consented to, the enactment thereof. etc 11. Notwithstanding anything in the Interpretation Act, 1889, the expression "Colony" shall not, in any Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed after the commencement of this Act, include a Dominion or any Province or State forming part of a Dominion. Canada , Australia and New Zealand became self ruling nations in 1931 and most definitely ceased to be colonies on that date. |
#465
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "Keith Willshaw" wrote in message ... "Spiv" wrote in message ... "Keith Willshaw" wrote in message ... "Spiv" wrote in message ... Nonsense. Britain invented globalisation in the 1700s. Dont be silly, They did. See "Empire" by Niall Ferguson. I have, Did you read it? Indeed and I note you snipped and avoided answering the obvious prior example of globalisation. It can feed itself. Much of the UK is national park. That can be used if needed for crop growing. You thrice dammed idiot. National Parks in the UK ARE open for farming, Not all of it birdbrain. Name ONE National Park in the UK where agriculture is banned, take your time. It didn't need to be in 1945, as it imported food from its North American colony, Canada, Canada was an independent nation by then which declared war independently on Germany. Not so. Independence in 1948, 1959 Statute of Westminster 1931 11. Notwithstanding anything in the Interpretation Act, 1889, the expression "Colony" shall not, in any Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed after the commencement of this Act, include a Dominion or any Province or State forming part of a Dominion. by then with the U boat problem suppressed. Which was just as well else we would have starved No. Not staved at all. Tight, but not starved. Winston Spencer Churchill disagrees "If Germany had prevented merchant ships from carrying food, raw materials, troops and their equipment from North America to Britain, the outcome of World War Two could have been radically different. Britain might have been starved into submission" Keitth |
#466
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"Brett" wrote in message ... Canada was an independent nation by then which declared war independently on Germany. Not so. Yes they did, and one Commonwealth of Nations country even chose to not to declare war on Germany in 1939. http://www.dfait-maeci.gc.ca/departm...tDocumentId=18 Whereas by and with the advice of Our Privy Council for Canada We have signified Our Approval for the issue of a Proclamation in the Canada Gazette declaring that a State of War with the German Reich exists and has existed in Our Dominion of Canada as and from the tenth day of September, 1939 At our Government House, in Our City of Ottawa, this tenth day of September, in the year of Our Lord one thousand nine hundred and thirty-nine and in the Third year of Our Reign. By Command, W. L. Mackenzie King, Prime Minister of Canada. Keith |
#467
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"Keith Willshaw" wrote:
"Brett" wrote in message ... Canada was an independent nation by then which declared war independently on Germany. Not so. Yes they did, and one Commonwealth of Nations country even chose to not to declare war on Germany in 1939. http://www.dfait-maeci.gc.ca/departm...tDocumentId=18 Whereas by and with the advice of Our Privy Council for Canada We have signified Our Approval for the issue of a Proclamation in the Canada Gazette declaring that a State of War with the German Reich exists and has existed in Our Dominion of Canada as and from the tenth day of September, 1939 At our Government House, in Our City of Ottawa, this tenth day of September, in the year of Our Lord one thousand nine hundred and thirty-nine and in the Third year of Our Reign. By Command, W. L. Mackenzie King, Prime Minister of Canada. Keith But will he know which one didn't declare war? |
#468
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "D. Patterson" wrote in message ... "Spiv" wrote in message ... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message hlink.net... "Spiv" wrote in message ... More arms were needed than what we could make. Duh! Yes, the UK could not arm or feed itself during WWII. It could feed itself, but it took until 1943 until UK industry outperformed Germany. Today, with modern farming techniques, the UK can easily feed itself, and others. At one point it produced more food than Canada, and more than Australia. We pay farmers not to produce now. Britain produced only 30% of its food going into the war. It never remotely approached 100% and badly damaged its soil fertility for decades to come in the efforts to increase the food production. Nonsense. Britain invented globalisation in the 1700s. No, it did not. It used armed forces to keep globalization from occurring by making it unlawful to construct manufacturies or sell raw materials to anyone but Britain. The UK has consistently imported produce and products that are cheaper than the home market. Yes, by prohibiting the manufacturies in its captive colonies. When it comes down to it, it can feed itself. In 1939 it was not ready,still importing vast qualitioes of food from the empire and others. Yes, by importing 70% of its food in 1939 and 49% of its food in 1945. Britain was incapable of feeding itself in the Second World War. By 1945 internal food production was way ahead of 1939. Food production increased by 70% from 30% self-sufficiency in 1939 to about 51% self-sufficiency in 1945. Britain remained incapable of feeding itself in the second World War. |
#469
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message hlink.net... "Spiv" wrote in message ... Nonsense. Britain invented globalisation in the 1700s. The UK has consistently imported produce and products that are cheaper than the home market. When it comes down to it, it can feed itself. In 1939 it was not ready,still importing vast qualitioes of food from the empire and others. By 1945 internal food production was way ahead of 1939. In other words, the UK could not arm or feed itself during WWII. You must learn to focus and at least attempt to get a point. The UK by 1945 could feed itself if it wanted too. Britain wanted to feed itself in 1939, 1945, 1949, 1955 and failed to do so even in 1972, when Britain was stil only 70% self-sufficient in food production. Once the battle of the Atlantic was won importing huge quantities of food from the USA and Canada was no longer a problem. which still meant that Britian was not self-sufficient in food production. Later in the war the UK could arm itself with no problems, but in the early part of the war, when Britain was fighting on many fronts by herself, she could not arm herself against a country that had begun arming itself for 10 years before the war, even with British industry running flat out. The U.K was never self-sufficient in the ability to arm itself at any time in the Second World War or after the Second World War. Britian also started arming itself for war ten years before the war. nonetheless, Britian was incapable of becoming self-sufficient in arming itself for war. |
#470
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"Spiv" wrote in message ... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message link.net... "Spiv" wrote in message ... You must learn to focus and at least attempt to get a point. You must learn that your point is not valid. The UK by 1945 could feed itself if it wanted too. The war ended in 1945. That is amazing. For you, it should be expected LOL. Once the battle of the Atlantic was won importing huge quantities of food from the USA and Canada was no longer a problem. But still a necessity as the UK could not arm or feed itself during the war. No, yet again you fail. When importing large qualities of grain, etc from north America, It meant the UK could concentrate on war production. Yes, importing 49% to 70% of the food consumed by Britain was certainly going to help British war production by keeping the failure of British food production from starving the British workers and their families to death. Simple when you know how. Yes, simple minded lies from a simple minded Spiv. |
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