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#61
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Is every touchdown a stall?
"Neil Gould" wrote in message
. .. If the stall warning horn is not sounding (a precondition from earlier posts), it can be presumed that the aircraft is "well above stall" speed. Not without a clear definition of "well above" (so far, none has been offered). And even if your own personal definition of "well above" is any airspeed at which the stall warning isn't sounding, any airplane can be landed safely without the stall warning going off, and many airplanes *should* be landed without the stall warning going off. The absence of a stall warning does not in and of itself suggest an unsafe landing. "Descending" is uninformative about the actual attitude or speed of the aircraft, It's about as uninformative as phrases like "well above" and "good flying speed". So what? You guys are engaged in a blatant double-standard in which your own ambiguous terminology is apparently acceptable, while someone else's is grounds for abuse. and whether one is landing or crashing depends at least to some degree on those other factors. It's valuable to read the entire thread if you wish to object to some response to it. I have read through the entire thread, and the assumptions you and others have made about statements made by Mxsmanic are just that: assumptions. You have no reason for making the inference that you have, other than to find a point of leverage for criticism. If you weren't so predisposed to attacking the guy, you never would have made such assumptions. Ironically, in making those assumptions, you are also posting your own vague and potentially incorrect statements. Those statements are the ones to which I'm responding. If it's fair game for you to infer arbitrary meaning in someone else's ambiguous terminology, why is it not fair for me to do so? Or on a related note: if you feel my inference of your meaning is incorrect, then correct it. So far, neither you nor anyone else has, in spite of my clear description of the inference that I've made. I've made clear the context in which my statements are made, including stating the inferences of the meaning of others' ambiguous statements. There's nothing wrong with my statements as is, so if you want to disagree, you need to clarify the meaning of your own ambiguous statements. Pete |
#62
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Is every touchdown a stall?
Recently, Peter Duniho posted:
"Neil Gould" wrote in message If the stall warning horn is not sounding (a precondition from earlier posts), it can be presumed that the aircraft is "well above stall" speed. Not without a clear definition of "well above" (so far, none has been offered). And even if your own personal definition of "well above" is any airspeed at which the stall warning isn't sounding, any airplane can be landed safely without the stall warning going off, and many airplanes *should* be landed without the stall warning going off. I agree; I *usually* land before the stall warning goes off. However, that is not the point, nor does it address the issues raised in this thread in the context that they were raised. To keep things simple, the response to the question of the thread -- "Is every touchdown a stall" is "no". However, I didn't enter the thread at that stage, and the point where I did enter it was discussion of landing in a different context. Specifically, I responded to: Mxsmanic: " No doubt, but my concern is that a stall is a rapid and significant loss of lift, and it seems that this would be dangerous with so little space for maneuvering beneath the aircraft. As long as the aircraft hasn't stalled, the descent rate is constant in a given configuration; if it stalls, it suddenly descends much more quickly, which seems risky so close to the runway." You excerpted that context and created a truncated statement from my reply that changed the meaning, and you are still arguing the merits of that comment *out of context*. The absence of a stall warning does not in and of itself suggest an unsafe landing. No one claimed that it does, as yet. You guys are engaged in a blatant double-standard in which your own ambiguous terminology is apparently acceptable, while someone else's is grounds for abuse. What "double standard" might that be? and whether one is landing or crashing depends at least to some degree on those other factors. It's valuable to read the entire thread if you wish to object to some response to it. I have read through the entire thread, and the assumptions you and others have made about statements made by Mxsmanic are just that: assumptions. Example of such an assumption that I have made, please? If you weren't so predisposed to attacking the guy, you never would have made such assumptions. I am not "predisposed to attacking the guy", yet another presumption that you are making that is completely unsubstantiated. If you followed other threads in this newsgroup, you would know that I've "known" Mxsmanic for years. In other newsgroups, and in other contexts I have agreed with him on many occassions. If he has any integrity, he'll confirm this for you if he reads this. My complaints are specific to some posts that he has made here, and I have not generalized those complaints into an "attack", as you are implying. Or on a related note: if you feel my inference of your meaning is incorrect, then correct it. See above. It's not only "incorrect", it's completely fabricated by you. So far, neither you nor anyone else has, in spite of my clear description of the inference that I've made. Clarity is in the eye of the beholder. I don't find your "descriptions" to be much more than obfuscation and generalization, and appear to be both off the mark in some cases and off-topic in other cases. And, of course, I think I've been pretty clear about both those points and the reasons why I think so. I've made clear the context in which my statements are made, including stating the inferences of the meaning of others' ambiguous statements. There's nothing wrong with my statements as is, so if you want to disagree, you need to clarify the meaning of your own ambiguous statements. And, of course, you don't find such comments as the above "ambiguous", even though there is not one specific reference in the entire paragraph. So, I don't have a clue as to what you are referring to, just a general notion that you are objecting to something or other and think you're right about it. Neil |
#63
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Is every touchdown a stall?
Recently, Peter Duniho posted:
"Neil Gould" wrote in message If the stall warning horn is not sounding (a precondition from earlier posts), it can be presumed that the aircraft is "well above stall" speed. Not without a clear definition of "well above" (so far, none has been offered). And even if your own personal definition of "well above" is any airspeed at which the stall warning isn't sounding, any airplane can be landed safely without the stall warning going off, and many airplanes should be landed without the stall warning going off. I agree; I usually land before the stall warning goes off. However, that is not the point, nor does it address the issues raised in this thread in the context that they were raised. To keep things simple, the response to the question of the thread -- "Is every touchdown a stall" is "no". However, I didn't enter the thread at that stage, and the point where I did enter it was discussion of landing in a different context. Specifically, I responded to: Mxsmanic: " No doubt, but my concern is that a stall is a rapid and significant loss of lift, and it seems that this would be dangerous with so little space for maneuvering beneath the aircraft. As long as the aircraft hasn't stalled, the descent rate is constant in a given configuration; if it stalls, it suddenly descends much more quickly, which seems risky so close to the runway." You excerpted that context and created a truncated statement from my reply that changed the meaning, and you are still arguing the merits of that comment out of context. The absence of a stall warning does not in and of itself suggest an unsafe landing. No one claimed that it does, as yet. You guys are engaged in a blatant double-standard in which your own ambiguous terminology is apparently acceptable, while someone else's is grounds for abuse. What "double standard" might that be? and whether one is landing or crashing depends at least to some degree on those other factors. It's valuable to read the entire thread if you wish to object to some response to it. I have read through the entire thread, and the assumptions you and others have made about statements made by Mxsmanic are just that: assumptions. Example of such an assumption that I have made, please? If you weren't so predisposed to attacking the guy, you never would have made such assumptions. I am not "predisposed to attacking the guy", yet another presumption that you are making that is completely unsubstantiated. If you followed other threads in this newsgroup, you would know that I've "known" Mxsmanic for years. In other newsgroups, and in other contexts I have agreed with him on many occassions. If he has any integrity, he'll confirm this for you if he reads this. My complaints are specific to some posts that he has made here, and I have not generalized those complaints into an "attack", as you are implying. Or on a related note: if you feel my inference of your meaning is incorrect, then correct it. See above. It's not only "incorrect", it's completely fabricated by you. So far, neither you nor anyone else has, in spite of my clear description of the inference that I've made. Clarity is in the eye of the beholder. I don't find your "descriptions" to be much more than obfuscation and generalization, and appear to be both off the mark in some cases and off-topic in other cases. And, of course, I think I've been pretty clear about both those points and the reasons why I think so. I've made clear the context in which my statements are made, including stating the inferences of the meaning of others' ambiguous statements. There's nothing wrong with my statements as is, so if you want to disagree, you need to clarify the meaning of your own ambiguous statements. And, of course, you don't find such comments as the above "ambiguous", even though there is not one specific reference in the entire paragraph. So, I don't have a clue as to what you are referring to, just a general notion that you are objecting to something or other and think you're right about it. Neil |
#64
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Is every touchdown a stall?
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#65
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Is every touchdown a stall?
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#66
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Is every touchdown a stall?
"cjcampbell" wrote in message oups.com... Dudley Henriques wrote: I love that act. It is absolutely my favorite. Chris, I used to watch you instruct. I always thought you were training your students for that role!!!:} Best, Karl (Just kidding Chris, couldn't resist!!) |
#67
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Is every touchdown a stall?
RK Henry writes:
Of course you can put the airplane on the runway at 100 knots. It's just bad practice. Tires and brakes are expensive. Excess stress on the landing gear can cause expensive damage. Stalling 20 feet above the runway can do lots of damage, too. I suppose that a stall six inches above the runway is harmless, but if it's only six inches, why bother? And it cuts things really close to try to get a stall only within the last six inches above the runway, no more and no less. It's generally better to touch down as slowly as practicable. And what's the slowest speed you can touch down? While touchdown speed may need to be adjusted slightly for conditions such as wind or turbulence, it's generally better to do your slowing down while on approach instead of carrying so much energy all the way to the runway. A good reference is the aircraft's POH, or the guidance of an instructor. But then, you don't get either of those with a simulator, do you? There's a POH of sorts of 100 pages or so, part of which comes from the real aircraft, and part of which is written for the simulated aircraft. -- Transpose mxsmanic and gmail to reach me by e-mail. |
#68
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Is every touchdown a stall?
Dave Doe writes:
There is an excellent manual, IIRC, in MSFS, and I'd suggest you read it, in particular the pattern work - flying by the numbers in MSFS is definately the way to go (as you have little to 'feel' by). The problem with the documentation in MSFS is that you can't read it and fly at the same time. Even looking at a map requires that the simulation be halted. -- Transpose mxsmanic and gmail to reach me by e-mail. |
#69
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Is every touchdown a stall?
Neil Gould writes:
You have "demonstrated" nothing at all. It's irrelevant that it might work in your sim. There's a reason why it's called a simulator. -- Transpose mxsmanic and gmail to reach me by e-mail. |
#70
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Is every touchdown a stall?
Mxsmanic wrote:
You don't need to stall the aircraft to descend. It can fly and descend at the same time. If you do this above a runway, you end up landing. If the rate of descent is gentle, you land very gently. It's easy to "land" with a minimum rate of descent by carrying extra power. This is however, not advisable. As I pointed out earlier you're going to have to disapate that energy (and may not be able to before you run out of runway). Further, you'll have a lower pitch attitude and in most planes it's the mains you want to take the brunt of the landing force with, not the nosewheel. Flying into the ground with excess energy is *NOT* good technique. As I understand it, a stall is a sudden change in the aerodynamics of the aircraft. Your understanding is as usual, incorrect. This would be all the more true under rough landing conditions, when you need to have precise control of the aircraft at all times. Y It doesn't sound like something you'd want when you are only a few feet above the runway. es, I can see how you'd need a longer runway, but if you're in a small aircraft, very often you have runway to spare, anyway. Again you persist to think that stalls somehow destroy controllability, which is not the case. I don't know if my techniques are valid, but I seem to be having more luck with safe landings since I started watching airspeed carefully to avoid anything like a stall. No you have had good luck playing games on the computer. You have not demoonstrated squat with regard to airplanes. |
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