Actually, in some very specific instances, land ownership IS a requirement
to vote. Specifically, if forming a road maintenance association sanctioned
by the local governement agency, you have to be a land owner along that road
in order to vote whether or not to form the association. Other "homeowner"
associations (water, electricity, sewer, etc.) require a vote of the
landowners involved in order to form.

Jim




"Gig 601XL Builder" wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote in message
...

"Jose" wrote in message
y.com...
(However, some voting rights to non-citizen property owners,
relating solely to their property, would be reasonable).

Jose

No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to
vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership?