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Actually, in some very specific instances, land ownership IS a requirement
to vote. Specifically, if forming a road maintenance association sanctioned by the local governement agency, you have to be a land owner along that road in order to vote whether or not to form the association. Other "homeowner" associations (water, electricity, sewer, etc.) require a vote of the landowners involved in order to form. Jim "Gig 601XL Builder" wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote in message ... "Jose" wrote in message y.com... (However, some voting rights to non-citizen property owners, relating solely to their property, would be reasonable). Jose No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership? |
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The homeowner association is not a government body and not really what we
are talking about. I'm not familiar with road maintenance associations either sanctioned by the local government or not. "RST Engineering" wrote in message ... Actually, in some very specific instances, land ownership IS a requirement to vote. Specifically, if forming a road maintenance association sanctioned by the local governement agency, you have to be a land owner along that road in order to vote whether or not to form the association. Other "homeowner" associations (water, electricity, sewer, etc.) require a vote of the landowners involved in order to form. Jim "Gig 601XL Builder" wrDOTgiaconaATcox.net wrote in message ... "Jose" wrote in message y.com... (However, some voting rights to non-citizen property owners, relating solely to their property, would be reasonable). Jose No, actually it wouldn't. We in the US don't require land ownership to vote so why should we grant voting rights because of land ownership? |
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