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#1
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![]() "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Yes. It's defined in law. It's been defined in law for centuries. The OED echoes that definition. The State determines what specific killings are illegal. For a killing to be murder, the victim must be human, the killing must have been intentional, it must have been premeditated, and it must be illegal. The State defines what is murder and what is not. So no State has ever defined murder to include the intentional dismemberment of a fetus to be murder? So what's the big deal with Roe-v-Wade then? |
#2
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California, as usual, provides a perfect example of the hypocrisy in this
issue... Look at the Scott Peterson case: he is charged with two counts of murder; one in the death of his pregnant wife, a second in the death of the fetus. But, in California, it is perfectly legal to abort a fetus, so a murder charge would not be levied against an abortion provider... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message ink.net... "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Yes. It's defined in law. It's been defined in law for centuries. The OED echoes that definition. The State determines what specific killings are illegal. For a killing to be murder, the victim must be human, the killing must have been intentional, it must have been premeditated, and it must be illegal. The State defines what is murder and what is not. So no State has ever defined murder to include the intentional dismemberment of a fetus to be murder? So what's the big deal with Roe-v-Wade then? |
#3
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![]() "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote: So no State has ever defined murder to include the intentional dismemberment of a fetus to be murder? So what's the big deal with Roe-v-Wade then? Some States did at one time. Roe-v-Wade invalidated all of those laws. George Patterson None of us is as dumb as all of us. |
#4
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![]() "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Some States did at one time. Roe-v-Wade invalidated all of those laws. Then murder is NOT a legal definition made by the State. |
#5
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![]() "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote: "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Some States did at one time. Roe-v-Wade invalidated all of those laws. Then murder is NOT a legal definition made by the State. YES IT IS. Countries are States. George Patterson None of us is as dumb as all of us. |
#6
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![]() "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... YES IT IS. Countries are States. So murder in the US is a federal crime? It's outside the jurisdiction of the States? |
#7
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![]() "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message ink.net... "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... YES IT IS. Countries are States. So murder in the US is a federal crime? It can be. But you're confusing "States" (as in United...) with "states" (a governmental jurisdiction"). Every heard the term "statism"? It's outside the jurisdiction of the States? |
#8
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![]() "Tom Sixkiller" wrote in message ... It can be. It can be? If murder is defined at the federal level and not at the state level, wouldn't all murders have to be prosecuted at the federal level? But you're confusing "States" (as in United...) with "states" (a governmental jurisdiction"). Well, my mistake then. I wasn't aware the feds had exclusive jurisdiction in murder cases. Every heard the term "statism"? Yup. I didn't know that it included murder though. |
#9
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![]() "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... "Steven P. McNicoll" wrote: "G.R. Patterson III" wrote in message ... Some States did at one time. Roe-v-Wade invalidated all of those laws. Then murder is NOT a legal definition made by the State. YES IT IS. Countries are States. I think he's confusing "States" with "states". |
#10
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![]() Tom Sixkiller wrote: I think he's confusing "States" with "states". Seems that way to me. I said it's defined by "the State", which is a pseudonym for "the government." Seems he's added an "s" to "the State". George Patterson None of us is as dumb as all of us. |
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