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![]() "Peter Duniho" wrote in message ... "Icebound" wrote in message able.rogers.com... If he was proveably intoxicated, would not "his" insurance company fight against paying anything at all, on the basis that the damage occurred while he was involved in an illegal activity, and thus he had voided the insurance contract?? Or is that a myth?? ...snip... ... Though, of course, your own insurance company may initially provide payment for the damages, passing on that payment to the drunk driver and/or his insurance company later. I would have expected the scenerio as you state here. Thanks for the complete explanation. |
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