interesting moment yesterday on final

"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message
link.net...

"Maxwell" wrote in message
m...

Why does the aircraft on final have the right-of-way?


Primarily because FAR 91.113(g) says aircraft on final have the
right-of-way.




Agreed. But AC 90-66 describes "final" as the segment between base leg and
the runway. Paragraph 7e clearly states that pilots executing a "straight-in
approach", without mentioning reason for the straight-in approach, will
complete it without disrupting arriving traffic.

"Maxwell" wrote in message
...

Agreed. But AC 90-66 describes "final" as the segment between base leg and
the runway.


Where? I can't find a description of "final" anywhere in AC 90-66A. The
Pilot/Controller Glossary defines "final" as "commonly used to mean that an
aircraft is on the final approach course or is aligned with a landing area."



Paragraph 7e clearly states that pilots executing a
"straight-in approach", without mentioning reason for the straight-in
approach, will complete it without disrupting arriving traffic.


No, it says maneuvering for and execution of the approach SHOULD
be completed so as not to disrupt the flow of arriving and departing
traffic. This is not the only inconsistency to be found between advisory
material and the FARs. Keep in mind that ACs are not regulatory while
the FARs are.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Steven P. McNicoll"

Where? I can't find a description of "final" anywhere in AC 90-66A. The
Pilot/Controller Glossary defines "final" as "commonly used to mean that
an
aircraft is on the final approach course or is aligned with a landing
area."


Paragraph 8e states the turn to base leg should commence 45 degrees from the
threshold, which requires final to be the approximately as long as the
downwind is from the runway.



No, it says maneuvering for and execution of the approach SHOULD
be completed so as not to disrupt the flow of arriving and departing
traffic. This is not the only inconsistency to be found between advisory
material and the FARs. Keep in mind that ACs are not regulatory while
the FARs are.

Where is AC 90-66 inconsistant with the FARs?

"Maxwell" wrote in message
...

Paragraph 8e states the turn to base leg should commence 45 degrees from
the threshold, which requires final to be the approximately as long as the
downwind is from the runway.


Stating that the turn from downwind to base leg should commence 45 degrees
from the threshold does not mean that final does not extend beyond the base
leg.



Where is AC 90-66 inconsistant with the FARs?


FAR 91.113(g) states very clearly that aircraft on final have the
right-of-way. If you believe AC 90-66A says aircraft flying a full pattern
have the right of way you must believe that AC 90-66A is inconsistent with
the FARs.

"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message
link.net...

"Maxwell" wrote in message
...

Paragraph 8e states the turn to base leg should commence 45 degrees from
the threshold, which requires final to be the approximately as long as
the
downwind is from the runway.


Stating that the turn from downwind to base leg should commence 45 degrees
from the threshold does not mean that final does not extend beyond the
base leg.

So now you are going to try to convince us that final doesn't follow base
leg. Do you have a reference?




Where is AC 90-66 inconsistant with the FARs?


FAR 91.113(g) states very clearly that aircraft on final have the
right-of-way. If you believe AC 90-66A says aircraft flying a full
pattern have the right of way you must believe that AC 90-66A is
inconsistent with the FARs.


No, as a matter of fact, the FAA clearly states in AC 90-66A that:

Aircraft on straight in approach should not disturb traffic in the standard
traffic pattern;

And, right-of-way rules apply as stated in FAR 91.113.

Obviously the FAA interprets FAR 91.113 much differently than you do.

"Maxwell" wrote in message
...

So now you are going to try to convince us that final doesn't follow base
leg. Do you have a reference?


No, I've been explaining that final extends beyond the base leg. It's clear
now that that fact is beyond your ability to understand.

"Steven P. McNicoll" wrote in message
ink.net...

"Maxwell" wrote in message
...

So now you are going to try to convince us that final doesn't follow base
leg. Do you have a reference?


No, I've been explaining that final extends beyond the base leg. It's
clear now that that fact is beyond your ability to understand.


Asked and answered Steven, your just trolling because you don't like the
answer.